Author: Maria Celina Bondoc / Editor: Steve Corry-Bass / Codes: HCPS4i / Published: 11/07/2019
A 73-year-old lady presents with 2 episodes of passing dark red blood per rectum associated with LIF pain of 1 day duration. She is otherwise systemically well.
No previous hospital admissions, and no co-morbidities.
On examination, observations: BP=140/90 HR=65 RR=20 SpO2=97% RA, Temp 37 C, the abdomen is soft and mildly tender in the LIF. PR exam shows bright red blood on the examining finger with no other obvious abnormalities.
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Which of the following is false according to the British society of gastroenterology (BSG)’s guidelines on LGIB?CorrectIncorrect
Oakland score is comprised of the following variables except for:CorrectIncorrect
What is the most likely cause of lower GI bleed in this patient?CorrectIncorrect